Regarding Mark 13:32
But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father. - Mark 13:32
How can Christ be God and also not know everything? This poses an issue for Christians since God is supposed to know everything and yet Christ does not know the time or the hour. How do Christians reconcile with this?
First Rebuttal: Christ does not know the hour in his human nature only but knows the time and hour in his divine nature
There are a few issues with this argument. First of all, this argument posits that Christ has two sets of knowledge, which assumes that Christ is two persons. This is a heresy called Nestorianism which is condemned by both the Catholic and Eastern Orthodox Churches.
However, even if this rebuttal came from a Protestant, they would need to explain how Christ being one unified person would have two sets of knowledge. Having two natures does not make it so that he would not know the time or the hour since the divine nature is embodying the same person of Christ that his human nature is.
Second Rebuttal: Christ actually did know the time or the hour because the Greek word can mean to declare
The first issue with this rebuttal is that if they made this argument they would need to concede that every single English Translation of the Bible is corrupted since no English Translated Bible makes it known to the reader that Christ declared instead of Christ knows.
The second issue is that Christians use the verse 1 Corinthians 2:2 to suggest that Christ declared instead of knew since here it makes it seem like Paul declared instead of knowing anything but Christ and him crucified. This is easily explained by the fact that phrases like "I know nothing" are used to express not knowing something and not everything. For example, if your mother comes to you and asks you about something wrong you've done, and you reply with, "I don't know anything, " are you literally saying that you don't know anything or that you don't know anything about this specific thing?
Furthermore, in Mark 13:33 Christ says "Take ye heed, watch and pray: for ye know not when the time is." Here the word know is used to mean possessing knowledge which is the same word used in Greek for know as is used in Mark 13:32, otherwise how it would be make sense for us to watch and pray if we don't declare the hour? Mark 13:33 is talking about possessing knowledge.
Here are the interpretations of the some of the Early Church Fathers:
But, beyond reason inflated [with your own wisdom], you presumptuously maintain that you are acquainted with the unspeakable mysteries of God; while even the Lord, the very Son of God, allowed that the Father alone knows the very day and hour of judgment, when He plainly declares, But of that day and that hour knows no man, neither the Son, but the Father only. If, then, the Son was not ashamed to ascribe the knowledge of that day to the Father only, but declared what was true regarding the matter, neither let us be ashamed to reserve for God those greater questions which may occur to us. For no man is superior to his master. - Irenaeus, Against Heresies, Book II, Chapter 28
The second issue is that Christians use the verse 1 Corinthians 2:2 to suggest that Christ declared instead of knew since here it makes it seem like Paul declared instead of knowing anything but Christ and him crucified. This is easily explained by the fact that phrases like "I know nothing" are used to express not knowing something and not everything. For example, if your mother comes to you and asks you about something wrong you've done, and you reply with, "I don't know anything, " are you literally saying that you don't know anything or that you don't know anything about this specific thing?
Furthermore, in Mark 13:33 Christ says "Take ye heed, watch and pray: for ye know not when the time is." Here the word know is used to mean possessing knowledge which is the same word used in Greek for know as is used in Mark 13:32, otherwise how it would be make sense for us to watch and pray if we don't declare the hour? Mark 13:33 is talking about possessing knowledge.
Here are the interpretations of the some of the Early Church Fathers:
But, beyond reason inflated [with your own wisdom], you presumptuously maintain that you are acquainted with the unspeakable mysteries of God; while even the Lord, the very Son of God, allowed that the Father alone knows the very day and hour of judgment, when He plainly declares, But of that day and that hour knows no man, neither the Son, but the Father only. If, then, the Son was not ashamed to ascribe the knowledge of that day to the Father only, but declared what was true regarding the matter, neither let us be ashamed to reserve for God those greater questions which may occur to us. For no man is superior to his master. - Irenaeus, Against Heresies, Book II, Chapter 28
when His disciples asked about the end, suitably said He then, 'no, nor the Son,' according to the flesh because of the body; that He might show that, as man, He knows not; for ignorance is proper to man. If however He is the Word, if it is He who is to come, He to be Judge, He to be the Bridegroom, He knows when and in what hour He comes, and when He is to say, 'Awake, you that sleep, and arise from the dead, and Christ shall give you light Ephesians 5:14.' For as, on becoming man, He hungers and thirsts and suffers with men, so with men as man He knows not; though divinely, being in the Father Word and Wisdom, He knows, and there is nothing which He knows not. - Athanasius, Four Discourses Against the Arians, Discourse III
Finally, the argument that the Greek word, "οἶδεν", which is used for the word "know" in Mark 13:32 can mean declare is not supported by the definition of the word. The word cannot be used other than to express the possession of knowledge according to all the definitions of the word.
Comments
Post a Comment